Improving the Epicurean argument for the harmlessness of death

The famous Epicurean argument that death (considered as leading to nonexistence) is not a harm is that death doesn’t harm one when one is alive and it doesn’t harm one when one is dead, since the nonexistent cannot be harmed.

However, the thesis that the nonexistent cannot be harmed is questionable: posthumous infamy seems to be a harm.

But there’s a neat way to fix this gap in the Epicurean argument. Suppose Bob lives 30 years in an ordinary world, and Alice lives a very similar 30 years, except that in her world time started with her existence and ended with her death. Thus, literally, Alice is always alive—she is alive at every time. But notice that the fact that the existence of everything else ends with Alice does not make Alice any better off than Bob! Thus, if death is a harm to Bob, it is a harm to Alice. But even if it is possible for the nonexistent to be harmed, Alice cannot be harmed at a time at which she doesn’t exist—because there is no time at which Alice doesn’t exist.

Hence, we can run a version of the Epicurean argument without the assumption that the nonexistent cannot be harmed.

I am inclined to think that the only satisfactory way out of the argument, especially in the case of Alice, is to adopt eternalism and say that death is a harm without being a harm at any particular time. What is a harm to Alice is that her life has an untimely shortness to it—a fact that is not tied to any particular time.

The Epicurean argument on death

The Epicurean argument is that death considered as cessation of existence does us no harm, since it doesn’t harm us when we are alive (as we are not dead then) and it doesn’t harm us when we are dead (since we don’t exist then to be harmed).

Consider a parallel argument: It is not a harm to occupy too little space—i.e., to be too small. For the harm of occupying too little space doesn’t occur where we exist (since that is space we occupy) and it doesn’t occur where we don’t exist (since we’re not there). The obvious response is that if I am too small, then the whole of me is harmed by not occupying more space. Similarly, then, if death is cessation of existence, and I die, then the whole of me is harmed by not occupying more time.

Here’s another case. Suppose that a flourishing life for humans contains at least ten years of conversation while Alice only has five years of conversation over her 80-year span of life. When has Alice been harmed? Nowhen! She obviously isn’t harmed by the lack of conversation during the five years of conversation. But neither is she harmed at any given time during the 75 years that she is not conversing. For if she is harmed by the lack of conversation at any given time during those 75 years, she is harmed by the lack of conversation during all of them—they are all on par, except maybe infancy which I will ignore for simplicity. But she’s only missing five years of conversation, not 75. She isn’t harmed over all of the 75 years.

There are temporal distribution goods, like having at least ten years of conversation, or having a broad variety of experiences, or falling in love at least once. These distribution goods are not located at times—they are goods attached to the whole of the person’s life. And there are distribution bads, which are the opposites of the temporal distribution goods. If death is the cessation of existence, it is one of these.

I wonder, though, whether it is possible for a presentist to believe in temporal distribution goods. Maybe. If not, then that’s too bad for the presentist.

Wacky reality dynamics

The dynamics of reality over time vary between theories of time. On growing block, at each moment a new present slice is added to reality. On presentism, at each moment the formerly present slice is subtracted from reality and a new present slice is added to replace it.

But once we admit that there are at least these two such “reality dynamics”, other possibilities show up.

Centisecondism: At each moment, the slice one millisecond (i.e., 0.01 seconds) in the past (if there is one) is subtracted from reality, while a new present slice is added. As a result, except during an initial one centisecond warmup when reality is just growing, reality is always a one-centisecond thick chunk. Centisecondism is superior to presentism in multiple ways. First, it seems hard to fit consciousness in an infinitesimally long reality, as in presentism, but a centisecond is good enough. Second, a centisecond is long enough for diachronic causal relations to be unproblematic. Third, presentism suffers from the problem that on presentism we never see reality. Because of light-travel times, we always see the past, and the past is not real! On centisecondism, we have a chance to see reality as it is.

Of course, a centisecond is arbitrary. The actual slice thickness could be bigger or smaller. It may seem ad hoc what it is. But it’s no more ad hoc than, say, the fine structure constant or any other constant in the laws of nature. If there is a God, he can decide on the slice thickness, in his wisdom, just as he decides on the fine structure constant. If there is no God, the thickness constant can be brute.

Eschatological growing block: Presentism is true right now: reality is one-moment thick. But then comes an eschaton. At the eschaton, suddenly all those past slices that had disappeared due to presentism pop back into reality, and we stop subtracting from reality, and begin to just add. Now we have growing block. This could give us a kind of transcendent outlook on the past in the eschaton. The eschatological growing block has the interesting consequence that being-real-at is not a symmetric relation. For instance, the time of the eschaton is not real at 2023, but 2023 is real at the time of the eschaton. This may seem strange, but in fact is true on any growing block theory.

Eschatological eternalism: Presentism is true right now. But eternalism starts to be true at the eschaton—at the eschaton not just one moment, and not just the past, but the whole past, present and future pop into reality. This provides a kind of temporalized version of Leftow’s model of a timeless God’s relation to a presentism time—the beings in the eschaton have an eternalist relation to our presentist time.

One might think that these theories require hypertime. That is not true for centisecondism or eschatological growing block, because centisecondism and eschatological growing block have room for defining the present moment without moving to hypertime. The present moment on both theories is just the leading the edge of reality. On eschatological eternalism, if we could get in a moving spotlight, then we could define a present moment. (Or could we have an eschatological eternalism on which “at the eschaton” all the “past, present and future” are actually present?)

I think centisecondism and eschatological growing block are both coherent if standard growing block is coherent. If I were a growing blocker, I think I would think that God could make a world where presentism or centisecondism or eschatological growing block are true, or almost true (by that I mean that in those worlds there wouldn’t be time, but time^*).

But I am B-theorist eternalist, and I am just giving all these stories for fun. I suspect that they are all ultimately impossible, as are presentism (of a standard sort) and growing block.

An Aristotelian argument for presentism

Here is a valid argument:

1. Matter survives substantial change.

2. It is not possible that there exist two substances of the same species with the very same matter.

3. If matter survives substantial change, it is possible to have two substances of the same species existing at different times with the very same matter.

4. So, it is possible to have two substances of the same species existing at different times with the very same matter. (1,3)

5. If presentism is not true, and it is possible to have two substances at different times existing with the very same matter, it is possible to have two substances of the same species existing with the very same matter.

6. So, if presentism is not true, it is possible to have two substances of the same species existing with the very same matter.

7. So, presentism is true. (2, 5)

Let’s think about the premises. I think Aristotle is committed to (1)—it’s essential to his solution to the alleged problem of change. Claim (2) is a famous Aristotelian commitment. Claim (3) is very, very plausible—surely matter moves around in the world, and it is possible to set things up so that I have the same atoms that Henry VIII had at some point in his life. Claim (5) follows when we note that the only two plausible alternatives to presentism are eternalism and growing block, and on both views if two substances of the same species exist at different times with the very same matter, then at the later time it is true that they both exist simpliciter.

However, given that there is excellent Aristotelian reason to deny presentism, the above argument gives some reason for Aristotelians to deny (1) or (2). Or to be more radical, and just deny that there is any such thing as the “matter” of traditional Aristotelianism.

Eternalism and future non-existence

I go back and forth on whether this is a strong argument against eternalism:

1. Given eternalism, it is guaranteed to be eternally the case that one exists simpliciter, even if one’s existence comes to an end.

2. Given eternalism, one’s existence coming to an end is just finitude in the forwards temporal direction.

3. If it is guaranteed to be eternally the case that one exists simpliciter, finitude in the forwards temporal direction would not be something to be dreaded.

4. So, given eternalism, one’s existence coming to an end would not be something to be dreaded. (1–3)

5. One’s existence coming to an end would be something to be dreaded.

6. So, eternalism is false. (4–5)

(As a theist, I think our existence does not come to an end. Hence the hypothetical “would” in (5).)

The intuition behind (3) is that finitude in the forwards temporal direction, given that one exists simpliciter, is akin to finitude in the backwards temporal direction or along a spatial axis, and these are clearly not to be dreaded.

But, on reflection, I think the eternalist can make very good sense of the appropriate attitudes to an end of existence. Consider this: If I were threatened with amputation of the part of me below the head—i.e., with being reduced to a head in a life-support tank—that would be something to be dreaded. It would be something to be dreaded, because the kind of functioning that is natural to human beings requires the below-the-head portion of the body. On the other hand, we could imagine sessile aliens that are very much like human heads, and there is nothing dreadful about the life of these aliens. These aliens’ lack of the below-the-head functioning normal humans enjoy would not be a deprivation.

Thus, human flourishing has spatial requirements: we require all of our body to fully flourish. Similarly, human flourishing has a robust temporal requirement: it requires an eternal future. This is because of the nature of human flourishing. Plausibly, human flourishing has a drive to infinity, requiring endless growth knowledge of reality and relationship with others. (This is probably not the whole story, but it will do for this post.) But our flourishing does not require spatial unlimitedness—on the contrary, there is a maximum size along each spatial axis such that a human being that is too big along that axis is not a fully flourishing human being.

We are four-dimensional beings, and we require a specific four-dimensional shape to flourish: a shape that is not too small and not too large in the three spatial directions and that is infinite in the forwards temporal direction. A finite future is a terrible truncation.

Now not every animal is like humans. Brute animals do not require an eternal future to be fully flourishing: they can achieve complete flourishing in a finite life, say because the lack the drive to the infinite that humans have. If we were like that, it would not be appropriate for us to dread future non-existence. Not being inclined to dread future non-existence is hard for us to imagine, because the drive to the infinite arises from such deep features of our nature. But philosophically, it makes perfect sense to think that there could be beings that can complete their flourishing in a finite compass.

The eternalist’s seeing a future end of existence of a human as a terrible truncation, but as not necessarily a terrible truncation in a non-human, seems very compelling. On the other hand, I think it is harder for a presentist to make sense of the difference here. Future non-existence seems really bad, because future non-existence on presentism would imply that eventually one will not exist simpliciter, and that seems dreadful. But the dreadfulness of this seems to have to do with the value of existence simpliciter, and not with our nature. Thus, we may have a story as to why it would make sense for a presentist to dread an end to existence, but that story proves too much: for that story would apply even if the presentist were the kind of non-human that doesn’t need an infinite future for flourishing.

Temporary intrinsics and internal time

The main problem the literature presents for eternalist theories is the problem of temporary intrinsics: how an object can have an intrinsic property at one time and lack it at another.

The most common solution is perdurantism: four-dimensional objects have ordinary properties derivatively from their instantaneous temporal parts or slices having them, and since the slices only exist at one time, the properties can be as intrinsic as one likes.

Another solution that has found some purchase is a view on which the properties that we previously thought were intrinsic, such as shape and charge, are in fact fundamentally relational, defined by a relation to a time. Thus, to be square is to be square at some time or other. This results in a more commonsense ontology than perdurantism, but it has the problem of just denying that there are temporary intrinsic properties.

This morning it’s occurred to me that if we say that substances carry with them an internal time sequence that is intrinsic to them, then relationalism can admit temporary intrinsic properties. A property of a substance, after all, can be intrinsic even if the property is relational, as long as the relations that the possession of the property is grounded in are intrinsic to the object, say by being relations between parts or other metaphysical components of that object. After all, shape is seen as the paradigmatic case of an intrinsic property, and yet it is often seen as grounded in the relations between the particles making up an object. But on a view on which substances carry an internal time sequence, the internal times can be taken to be intrinsic aspects of the substance, and then ordinary properties can be seen as relational to the these internal times. Thus, to be square is more fundamentally to be square at some internal time or other.

What kinds of intrinsic aspects of the substance are the internal times? Here, there are multiple options. They could be sui generis aspects of the substance. They could be tropes—for instance, if substances all have beginnings, one could identify a time with the trope of having survived for a temporal duration D.

Internal times could even be time slices of the substance. This last option may seem to take us back to perdurantism, but it does not. For it is one thing to say that I am in pain because my temporal part ARP_t is in pain—it sure seems implausible to say that I am in pain derivatively from something else being in pain—and another to say that my being in pain is constituted by a relation to ARP_t, which part is in no pain at all. (That pain is constituted by a relation between the aspects of a substance is not at all strange and unfamiliar as a view: a materialist may well say that pain is constituted by relations between neuronal activities.)

Note, too, a view on which intrinsics are relational to internal times also solves another problem with views on which ordinary properties are relational to times: if those times are external, then time travel to a time at which one “already” exists is ruled out.

My own preferred view is that a nested trope ontology. I have a trope of being human. That trope then has an infinite number of temporal existence tropes, corresponding to all the different internal times at which I exist. These temporal existence tropes—or maybe even temporal human existence tropes—are then the internal times. And I can even say what the relation that makes a temporary intrinsic obtain at a temporal existence tropes t is: that temporary intrinsic obtains at t provided that it is a trope of t.

Heaven, the goods of others and the defeat of evil

There is a delight in competing athletically with one’s child: if they win, it feels good, and if one wins, it feels good, too. (The hedonic ideal is achieved when the child wins about 60% of the time; then one feels proud of their superiority, but not rarely one has the pleasure of beating a stronger opponent.)

Parental love makes it easy to love another as oneself (to paraphrase what C. S. Lewis says about Eros). It thus gives us an image of what it is like to be in heaven: we will greatly enjoy the goods had by others. This gives us an attractive picture of how the joy of heaven could fit with enduring differences in personal characteristics. Perhaps being an extrovert would not be true to my self and to God’s vocation for me, and so maybe even over an eternity in heaven I won’t be extroverted. But if so, I will still be fully happy for the joy of the heavenly extroverts, without any regret that I am not one of them, while they will be fully happy for me introverted joys, also without any regret that they are not like me.

Here are two controversial (for very different reasons) applications of this. First, there is a genuine and distinctive good in being a woman and there is a genuine and distinctive good in being a man, and it seems to make sense for a person to desire the goods of the other sex, regardless of whether it is possible to have them oneself. In heaven, however, Joseph can enjoy Mary’s good in being a woman and Mary can enjoy Joseph’s good in being a man, without Joseph regretting that he personally “only” has the good of manhood and Mary regretting that she personally “only” has the good of womanhood. That is what total love is like.

Second, given an eternalist or moving block theory of time, the past will always be fully real. This in turn gives us a solution to the problem that various important goods, such as marriage and self-sacrifice, will not be available in heaven. For we will be able to rejoice in others’ past possession of these goods, without regret for the fact that they aren’t ours and now.

The second point, however, raises the following problem: Won’t we also grieve for others’ past—and even present, if hell is a reality (as I think it is)—subjection to great evils? Maybe, but in God’s plan there is a crucial asymmetry between good and evil. Evils are defeated. How this defeat happens is deeply mysterious. But because of this defeat, I suspect the grief for a defeated evil will not hurt, precisely because of the evil’s being defeated, while goods remain undefeated and hence the joy for them will always delight.

In fact, the last point suggests something to me. A lot of philosophers of religion have said that it’s not enough for theodicy if evils are justly compensated for or their permission is in some way justified. We need these evils to be defeated. I think this is mistaken if all we are after is a response to the problem of evil. But we also need a response to the problem of why the past and present suffering of others doesn’t cause the saints pain in heaven. And it is here that we need the defeat of evil.

Presentism, promises and privation

It appears that the presentist (and maybe even growing blocker) may not be able to accept either the privation theory of evil, which says that every evil is the lack of a due good, nor the privation theory of evilmaking, which says that every evil either is the lack of a due good or is made evil by the lack of a due good.

For suppose I promise you that one unspecified day I will do A for you. But it turns out that I never do it. That’s an evil, and intuitively it is an evil because of the lack of fulfillment of the promise, which sure sounds like a privation. But when do we have this evil? Either when I make the promise or at some later time. The nonexistence of future promise fulfillment isn’t the lack of a due good given presentism or growing block. For the nonexistence of future action A is automatic given presentism or growing block, and something automatic like that can’t be an evil. Another way to put the point is that something that would have to be future can’t be such as to be due to exist. Suppose, now, the evil is at some later time. But no later time is such that I ought on that day to do A, since the day for doing A was not specified, so on no day is my failure to do A a lack of a due good.

The growing blocker might at least say that at the last moment of my life the nonexistence of A during the present and past is the lack of a due good—but even that won’t work if I live forever and never do A.

The eternalist, on the other hand, can say that the non-existence of A throughout a finite or infinite interval of times can count as the lack of a due good, regardless of whether these times are past, present or future.

A new argument for presentism

Here’s an interesting argument favoring presentism that I’ve never seen before:

1. Obviously, a being that fails to exist at some time t is not a necessary being.

2. If presentism is true, we have an elegant explanation of (1): If x fails to exist at t₁, then at t₁ it is true that x does not exist simpliciter, and whatever is true at any time is possibly true, so it is possible that x does not exist simpliciter, and hence x is not a necessary being.

3. If presentism is false, we have no equally good explanation of (1).

4. So, (1) is evidence for presentism.

I don’t know how strong this argument is, but it does present an interesting explanatory puzzle for the eternalist:

5. Why is it that non-existence at a time entails not being necessary?

Here’s my best response to the argument. Consider the spatial parallel to (1):

6. Obviously, a being that fails to exist at some location z is not a necessary being.

It may be true that a being that fails to exist at some location is not a necessary being, since in fact the necessary being is God and God is omnipresent. But even if it’s true, it’s not obvious. If Platonism were true, then numbers would be counterexamples to (6), in that they would be necessary beings that aren’t omnipresent.

But numbers seem to be not only aspatial but also atemporal. And if that’s right, then (1) isn’t obvious either. (In fact, if numbers are atemporal, then they are a counterexample to presentism, since they don’t exist presently but still exist simpliciter.)

What if the presentist insists that numbers would exist at every time but would not be spatial? Well, that may be: but it’s far from obvious.

What if we drop the “Obviously” in (1)? Then I think the eternalist theist can give an explanation of (1): The only necessary being is God, and by omnipresence there is no time at which God isn’t present.

Maybe one can use the above considerations to offer some sort of an argument for presentism-or-theism.

Simultaneous actualization of potentiality

I will argue, on Aristotelian grounds, for the following thesis:

• There are cases of actualization of potentials that are simultaneous with the possession of the potentials.

In particular, it follows that Aristotelian arguments against eternalism on the grounds that eternalism makes potentials co-real with their actualities fail, because every Aristotelian has to admit that there are potentials that are co-real with their actualities.

Here is the argument for the thesis.

1. All ordinary substances have first moments of existence.

It follows from Causal Finitism that all temporal substances have a first moment of existence. By “ordinary” substances, I mean things like dogs, cats and oak trees. I am excluding weirder candidates like the wavefunction of the universe or the universe itself, as well as extraordinary substances such as angels.

Now we add this premise:

2. Every ordinary substance always actualizes a potential of itself.

For instance, ordinary substances are always emitting electromagnetic radiation, and on Aristotelian grounds such activity had better be the actualization of a potential.

Now, while time travel and backwards causation might turn out to be possible, they are extraordinary. Thus:

3. An ordinary substance never actualizes a future potential.

Moreover, transsubstantiation is also extraordinary and:

4. Every potential that an ordinary substance has is one that it has at a time at which it exists.

From 1-4, it follows that:

5. An ordinary substance in the first moment of its existence actualizes a potential that it has then.

For suppose Alice is an ordinary substance and it’s now the first moment of her existence (she has such a moment by (1)). Alice actaulizes a potential of herself by (2). That potential which she is actualizing must be had by her in the present or the future by (4), since this is the first moment of her existence. She isn’t actualizing a future potential by (3). So she must be actualizing a present one.

And (5) gives us the thesis about potentiality being sometimes simultaneous with its actuality.

Presentism and the Cross

1. It is important for Christian life that one unite one’s daily sacrifices with Christ’s sufferings on the cross.

2. Uniting one’s sufferings with something non-existent is not important for Christian life.

3. So, Christ’s sufferings on the cross are a part of reality.

4. So, presentism is false.

The present doesn't ground the past

I will run an argument against the thesis that facts about the past are grounded in the present on the basis of the intuition that that would be a problematically backwards explanation.

Suppose for a reductio:

1. Necessarily, facts about the past are fully grounded in facts about the present.

Add the plausible premises:

2. Necessarily, if fact C is fully grounded in some facts, the Bs, and the Bs are fully causally explained by fact A, then fact A causally explains fact C.

As an illustration, suppose that the full causal explanation of why the Nobel committee gave the Nobel prize to Bob is that Alice persuaded them to. Bob’s being a Nobel prize winner is fully grounded in his being awarded the Nobel prize by the Nobel committee. So, Alice’s persuasion fully causally explains why Bob is the Nobel prize winner.

3. It is possible to have a Newtonian world such that:

   1. All the facts about the world at any one time are fully causally explained by the complete state of the universe at any earlier time.

   2. There are no temporally backwards causal explanations.

   3. There are at least three times.

Now, consider such a Newtonian world, and let t₁ < t₂ < t₃ be three times (by (3c)).

Suppose that t₃ is now present. Let U_i be the fact that the complete state of the universe at time t_i is (or will be or was) as it is (or will be or was). Then:

4. Fact U₁ is fully grounded in some facts about the present. (By (1))

Call these facts the Bs.

5. The Bs are fully causally explained by U₂. (As (3a) holds in our assumed world)

Therefore:

6. Fact U₁ is fully causally explained by U₂. (By (1))

7. So, there is backwards causal explanation. (By (6))

8. Contradiction! (By (7) and as (3b) holds in our assumed world)

I think we should reject (1), and either opt for eternalism or for Merricks’ version of presentism on which facts about the past are ungrounded.

Theories of time and truth-supervenes-on-being

Truth supervenes on being is the thesis that if two worlds have the same entities, they are otherwise the same. I just realized something that should be pretty obvious. One cannot hold on to all three of the following:

• A-theory

• eternalism

• truth supervenes on being.

For according to eternalism, at any two different times, the facts about what exists are the same. So if truth supervenes on being, at any two different times, all facts are the same—and in particular the facts about what time is objectively present will be the same, which contradicts A-theory.

In other words, just as the best version of presentism (that of Trenton Merricks) rejects that truth supervenes on being, so does the best version of the moving spotlight theory. Moreover, closed-future growing blockers—and, in particular, classical theist growing blockers—will also want to reject that truth supervenes on being since substantive truths about the future won’t supervene on being given growing block.

All this suggests that we are left with only two major theories of time available to those who accept that truth supervenes on being:

• B-theoretic eternalism

• growing block with an open future.

Grace and theories of time

1. All grace received is given through Christ’s work of salvation.
2. Christ’s work of salvation happened in the first centuries AD and BC.
3. One cannot give something through something that does not exist.
4. Abraham received grace prior to the first century BC.
5. So, Abraham’s grace was given through Christ’s work of salvation.
6. So, it was true to say that Christ’s work of salvation exists even when it was yet in the future.
7. So, presentism and growing block are false.

Is eternalism compatible with the actualization of potentiality?

Every so often, someone claims to me that there is a difficulty in reconciling the Aristotelian idea of the actualization of potential with eternalism, the view that past, present and future are equally real. I am puzzled by this question, because I can’t see the difficulty. On the contrary, there is a tension between presentism, the view that only present things exist, and this Aristotelian thesis:

1. Some present events are the actualization of a no-longer present potentiality.

2. A non-existent thing is not actualized.

3. Therefore, some no-longer present potentialities exist.

4. Therefore, something that is no longer present exists.

5. Therefore, presentism is false.

One might say: Yes, the potentiality doesn’t exist, but it did exist, and it was actualized. But then:

6. Some present potentialities are actualized in not yet present events.

7. A non-existent thing does not actualize anything.

8. So, there exist some not yet present things.

9. So, presentism is false.

Of course, this is the old problem of transtemporal relations for presentism as applied to the actualization relation.

So, what about the question whether eternalists can have actualization of potentials? Here may be the problem. On eternalism plus Aristotelianism, it seems that the past unactualized potential exists even though it is now actualized. This seems to be a contradiction: how can an unactualized potential be actualized?

A first answer is that a potential is actualized at a time t provided that its actualization exists at t. Thus, the potential is unactualized at t₁ but actualized at a later time t₂, because its actualization exists at t₂ but not at t₁. But, the objector can continue, by eternalism at t₁ isn’t it the case that the actualization exists? Yes: but the eternalist distinguishes:

10. It is true at t₁ that B exists.

11. B exists at t₁.

Claim (11), for spatiotemporal objects, means something like this: the three-dimensional spacetime hypersurface corresponding to t = t₁ intersects B. Claim (10) means that B exists simpliciter, somewhere in spacetime (assuming it’s a spatiotemporal object). There is no contradiction in saying that the actualization doesn’t exist at t₁, even though it is true at t₁ that it exists simpliciter.

The second answer is that Aristotelianism does not need actualizations of unactualized potentials. Causation is the actualization of a potential. But Aristotle and Aquinas both believed in the possibility of simultaneous causation. In simultaneous causation, an event B is the actualization of a simultaneous potential A. At the time of the simultaneous causation, nobody, whether presentist or eternalist, can say that B is the actualization of unactualized potential, since then the potential would be actualized and unactualized at the same time. Thus, one can have causation, and actualization of potential, where the potential and the actualization are simultaneously real, and hence where the actualization is not of an unactualized potential. The eternalist could—but does not have to—say that transtemporal cases are like this, too: they are actualizations of a potential, but not of an unactualized potential.

Presentism and vagueness

If presentism is true, then vagueness about the exact moment of cessation of existence implies vagueness about existence: for if it is vague whether an object has ceased to exist at t, then at time t it was, is or will be vague whether the object exists. But it is plausible that there is vagueness about the exact moment of cessation of existence for typical organisms (horses, trees, etc.). On the other hand, vagueness about existence seems to be a more serious logical problem: it makes unrestricted quantifiers vague.

Of course, the eternalist will have a similar problem with vagueness about existence-at-t. But existence-at-t is not fundamental logical existence on eternalism, so perhaps the problem is less serious.

My experience of temporality

This morning I find myself feeling the force of presentism. I am finding it hard to see my four-dimensional worm theory as adequately explaining why my experience only includes what I am experiencing now, instead of the whole richness of my four-dimensional life. I am also finding it difficult to satisfactorily explain the sequentiality of my experiences: that I will have different experiences from those that I have now, some of which I dread and some of which I anticipate eagerly.

When I try to write down the thoughts that make me feel the force of presentism, the force of the thoughts is largely drained. After all, to be fair, when I wrote that I have am having trouble “explaining why my experience only includes what I am experiencing now”, shouldn’t I have written: “explaining why my present experience only includes what I am experiencing now”, a triviality? And that mysterious sequentiality, is that anything beyond the fact that some of my experiences are in the future of my present experience?

The first part of the mystery is due to the chopped up nature of my consciousness on a four-dimensional view. Instead of seeing my life as a whole, as God sees it, I see it in very short (but probably not instantaneous) pieces. It is puzzling how my consciousness can be so chopped up, and yet be all mine. But we have good reason to think that this phenomenon occurs outside of temporality. Split brain patients seem to have such chopped up consciousnesses. And if consciousness is an operation of the mind’s, then on orthodox Christology, the incarnate Christ, while one person, had (and still has) two consciousnesses.

Unfortunately, both the split brains and the Incarnation are mysterious phenomena, so they don’t do much to take away the feeling of mystery about the temporal chopping up of the consciousness of my four-dimensional life. But they do make me feel that there is no good argument for presentism here.

The second part of the mystery is due to the sequentiality of the experiences. As the split brain and Incarnation cases show, the sequentiality of experiences in different spheres of consciousness is not universal. The split brain patient has two non-sequential, simultaneous spheres of consciousness. Christ has his temporal sphere (or spheres, if we take the four-dimensional view) of consciousness and his divine atemporal sphere of consciousness. But seeing the contingency of the sequentiality does not remove the mystery in the sequentiality.

It makes me feel a little better when I recall that the presentist story about the sequentiality has its own problems. If my future experiences aren’t real—on presentism they are nothing but stuff in the scope of a modal “will” operator that doesn’t satisfy the T axiom—then what am I anticipating or dreading? It seems I am just here in the present, and when I think about this, it feels just as mysterious as on four-dimensionalism what makes the future impend. Of course, the presentist can give a reductive or non-reductive account of the asymmetry between past and future, but so can the four-dimensionalist.

So what remains of this morning’s presentist feelings? Mostly this worry: Time is mysterious and our theories of time—whether eternalist or presentist—do not do justice to its mysteriousness. This is like the thought that qualia are mysterious, but when we give particular theories of them—whether materialist or dualist—it feels like something is left out.

But what if I forget about standard four-dimensionalism and presentism, and just try to see what theory of time fits with my experiences? I then find myself pulled towards a view of time I had when I was around ten years old. Reality is four-dimensional, but we travel through it. Future sufferings I dread are there, ahead of me. But I am not just a temporal part among many: there is no future self suffering future pains and enjoying future pleasures. The past and future have physical reality but it’s all zombies. As for me, I am wholly here and now. And you are wholly here and now. We travel together through the four-dimensional reality.

But these future pains and pleasures, how can they be if they are not had by me or anyone else? They are like the persisting smile of the Cheshire cat. (I wasn’t worried about this when I was ten, because I was mainly imagining myself as traveling through events, and not philosophically thinking about my changing mental states. It wasn’t a theory, but a way of thinking.) Put that way, maybe it’s not so crazy. After all, the standard Catholic view of the Eucharist is that the accidents of bread and wine exist without anything having them. So perhaps my future and past pains and pleasures exist without anyone having them—but one day I will have them.

Even this strange theory, though, does not do justice to sequentiality. What makes it be the case that I am traveling towards the future rather than towards the past?

And what about Relativity Theory? Why don’t we get out of sync with one another if we travel fast enough relative to one another? Perhaps the twin who travels at near light speed comes back to earth and meets only zombies, not real selves? That seems absurd. Maybe though the internal flow of time doesn’t work like that.

I do not think this is an attractive theory. It is the theory that best fits most of my experience of temporality, and that is a real consideration in favor of it. But it doesn’t solve the puzzle of sequentiality. I think I will stick with four-dimensionalism. For now. (!)

Two puzzles about pain and time

Supposing the growing block theory of time is correct and you have a choice between two options.

1. You suffer 60 minutes of pain from 10:30 pm to 11:30 pm.
2. You suffer 65 minutes of pain from 10:50 pm to 11:55 pm.

Clearly, all other things being equal, it is irrational to opt for B. But supposing growing block theory is true, there are only past and present pains, and no future pains, so why is it irrational to opt for B?

Well, maybe rationality calls on us to make future reality be better, and we have:

1. If you opt for A, then at 11:55 reality will contain 60 minutes of pain

2. If you opt for B, then at 11:55 reality will contain 65 minutes of pain.

Opting for B will make reality worse (for you) at 11:55, so it seems irrational to choose B. However, we also have facts like these:

3. If you opt for A, then at 11:30 reality will contain 60 minutes of pain.

4. If you opt for B, then at 11:30 reality will contain 55 minutes of pain.

Thus, opting for A will make reality worse at 11:30. Why should the 11:55 comparison trump the 11:30 comparison?

One answer is this: The 11:55 comparison continues forever. If you choose B, then reality tomorrow, the day after tomorrow, and so on will be worse than if you choose B, as on all these days reality will contain the 65 minutes of past pain instead of the mere 60 minutes if you choose A.

However, this answer isn’t the true explanation. For suppose time comes to an end tonight at midnight. Then it’s still just as obvious that you should opt for A instead of B. However, now, it is only during the ten minute period after 11:50 pm and before midnight that reality-on-B is worse than reality-on-A, while reality-on-A is better than reality-on-B during the whole of the 80 minute period strictly between 10:30 pm and 11:50 pm. It is mysterious why the comparison during the 10 minute period starting 11:50 pm should trump the comparison during the 80 minute period ending at 11:50 pm.

I suppose the growing blocker’s best bet is to say that later comparisons always trump earlier ones. It is mysterious why this is the case, though.

The story is also puzzling for the presentist, as I discuss here. But there is no problem for the eternalist: on B reality always contains more pain than on A.

However, there is a different puzzle where the growing blocker can tell a better story than the eternalist. Suppose you will live forever, and your choice is between:

3. You will feel pain from 10 pm to 11 pm every day starting tomorrow
4. You will feel pain from 9 am to 11 am every day starting tomorrow.

Intuitively, you should go for C rather than D. But on eternalism, on both C and D reality includes an equal infinite number of hours of pain. But on growing block, after 9 am tomorrow, reality will be worse for you if you choose D rather than C. Indeed, at every time after 9 am, on option D reality will contain at least twice as much pain for you as on option C (bracketing any pains prior to 9 am tomorrow). So it’s very intuitive that on growing block you should choose C.

Maybe, though, the eternalist can say that utility comparisons involving infinities just are going to be counterintuitive because infinities are innately counterintuitive, as our intuitions are designed/evolved for dealing with finite cases. Moreover, we can tell similar puzzles involving infinities without involving theories of time. For instance, suppose an infinite line of people numbered 1,2,3,…, all of whom are suffering headaches, and you have a choice whether to relieve the headache of the persons whose number is even versus the headache of the persons whose number is prime. The intuition that C is better than D seems to be exactly parallel to the intuition that it’s better to benefit the even-numbered rather than the prime-numbered. But the latter intuition is not defensible. (Imagine reordering the people so now the formerly prime-numbered are even-numbered and vice-versa. Surely such a reordering shouldn’t make any moral difference.) So perhaps we need to give up the intuition that C is better than D?

Asymmetric temporal attitudes and time travel

Philosophers sometimes use thought experiments concerning the asymmetry of attitudes towards future and past events as arguments for a metaphysical asymmetry between past and future. For instance, the fact that I would prefer a much larger pain in my past to a smaller pain in the future is puzzling if the past and future are metaphysically on par.

Here’s a thesis I want to offer and briefly defend:

• It is not rationally consistent to give use thought experiments in this way and to accept the possibility of backwards time travel.

The reason is quite simple: if backwards time travel is possible, our asymmetric attitudes track personal time, not objective time. If I am going to travel 100 million years back in six minutes, I will prefer a smaller pain in five minutes to a much larger pain 100 million years ago, since both of these pains will be in my personal future and only a minute of personal time apart. But the metaphysical asymmetry between past and future tracks external time, not personal time.

Reattachment of fingers and a new Aristotelian argument for presentism

Suppose Alice loses her finger at t₁ and at t₂ it is reattached. Intuitively, after t₂ she has the same finger as she had before t₁. But now suppose that at t₃ she loses her finger again, and it is reattached again at t₄. Then at t₁ and t₃ she is shedding the numerically same finger. Do the two sheddings result in the numerically same severed finger (which is a finger in name only)?

It seems that the answer is affirmative—if we were right in thinking the reattached finger to be the same finger as the original one. For there seems to be a symmetry between re-shedding and re-attachment as we could replace shedding by a transplant operation when a finger is moved back and forth between two people (Terry Pratchett’s Igors probably do that sort of thing for fun sometimes), after all.

But here’s something metaphysically odd. Call the finger F and the severed finger S. Then there is a major metaphysical difference between the first and the second severing. Let’s think about the difference assuming eternalism. Then the first severing causes a severed finger to exist simpliciter. But the second severing does not cause a severed finger to exist simpliciter, but only to come to exist at t₃. This is puzzling. In both cases, it seems that we have the same kind of cause, namely the severing of a finger, but the first time this has an ontic effect, a new being exists, and the second time it has no ontic effect. This seems wrong: the same kind of cause should have the same kind of effect, barring something indeterministic.

Maybe we could say that the finger’s coming to exist simpliciter is overdetermined by the severings. But this is counterintuitive. It shouldn’t be possible to add overdetermination to an effect already achieved, in the way that the second severing does. (Moreover, the overdetermination view conflicts with strong origins essentialism, which I accept, and the plausible counterfactual thesis that if the second severing didn’t happen, the very same severed finger S would have come into existence at t₁ as actually did. For by strong origins essentialism, if an object was overdetermined in its origination, it could not exist without being thus overdetermined. But then if the second severing didn’t happen, S wouldn’t have been overdetermined, so it couldn’t exist.)

So we have a puzzle for eternalism (and growing block, too). One could even take the above line of thought as a direct argument for presentism. Informally:

1. After reattachment, one has the same finger F as originally.
2. If after reattachment one has the same finger as originally, then each severing results in the same severed finger S.
3. The first severing causes S to exist simpliciter and presently.
4. The second severing only causes S to exist presently.
5. Both sheddings have the same kind of effect.
6. So, existing simpliciter must be nothing but existing presently.
7. So, presentism is true.

What should the eternalist (or growing blocker) say? It seems to me that the best move is to deny that both sheddings result in the same severed finger. The first results in S₁ and the second results in S₂ and S₁ ≠ S₂. By symmetry between re-shedding and re-attachment, I think we have to say that the reattached finger is numerically different from the original one, and deny (1). That is counterintuitive, but it seems the least costly response.

Objection: God could ensure that the reattached finger is the same as the original.

Respose: I think so. But that would be a miraculous intervention. And the symmetry would then require a similar miraculous intervention to ensure that the severed finger after the second shedding is the same as the severed finger after the first shedding. And this makes the second shedding causally different from the first, since no such miraculous intervention was needed to modify the first shedding. And with the two sheddings being different in kind, (5) will no longer be plausible.